In unusual fashion here is a quickie....
I was doing some research about a legal issue today (aka-working) and came across a case where the plaintiff was injured resulting in about 2 years worth of sexual dysfunction, I think he broke his pelvis or some such and was unable to have sex for a year before the trial and likely for another year afterwards. Obviously he wanted compensation for all his injuries. However the law also allows for a spouse to seek money for what is called "loss of consortium", which basically entails all that people in marriages benefit from...sex, companionship, etc. Typically this loss is compensated heavily when a spouse is killed. However in this particular case the wife was awarded $40,000 for the lack of her husbands sexual services for 2 years and some change.
Which lead me to wonder how much is two years worth of sex with my husband worth? I mean he cannot perform at all...his pelvis is broken, and should it not heal properly he may be "handicapped" forever.
While I know this sort of loss cannot ever truly be quantified...Is it just me that thinks 40k is not NEARLY adequate?
I guess the argument could be made that the amount that he is awarded in damages is partly hers as well so in essence she is getting more then 40k...but I think I would want the record to reflect that sex with my husband is worth more then 20k per year!
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2 comments:
Look. I was reading it thinking "$40K! Wow. That's alot!" And here you come saying that it's not adequate. Figures. Lol.
Well compared to the fact that the husband got $250k for his sexual dysfunction, it just seems disproportionate, why is his sex so much more valuable then hers?? And i've seen other cases where older husbands have become paralyzed and therefore totally unable to have sex ever again and the wife got $895k! I can't recall the age of the woman particular in this case but I think this was a youngish couple...2yrs, no sex, and I['m married! Yeah 40k will not do!
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